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In Reply to: "HIDDEN in the music, hence subliminal." posted by clarkjohnsen on August 26, 2002 at 08:36:36:
If you want to be accurate, the operative word in the context of this exchange is probably apprehension. When something is below one's apprehension it doesn't necessarily mean that it's beneath the "threshold of conscious perception" as you phrased it. To the contrary, it might just be below that individual's audible perception or understanding. In other words, the mere presence of something perceived as HIDDEN (i.e., ear of the beholder) based upon the differences between extraneous and intrinsic sounds, words, or whatever may be sufficient reason to describe it as subliminal.Glad to clear that up for you, Clark! ;^)
Follow Ups:
...(if you've ever heard one), especially given in English, the words may not be clear, and be covered somewhat by the orchestra, but *if you know them* they are perfectly clear.
... (more simply) so that it might be clearer for you:If the lyrics you *know* are the same ones written by the music's authors and recorded exactly as published, then the music, whether heard clearly or not, doesn't have subliminal content. OTOH, if the lyric content in a live or recorded performance varies from the published lines leaving it's message somewhat veiled except to those listening for it, then the music may accurately be described as having subliminal content.
n
KP
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... but at least Dr. Errol Morris would be impressed! ;^)
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