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That's the implication.

You stated (and I quote): "When I saw the films I always felt uncomfortable about some sous-adjacent (under-lying?) racism and wrote so in my comment of LOTR III. Now I know why! The author was a great admirer of Generalissimo Franco..."

There you have it! You've indicated that the films convey an underlying racism and the fault lies with the author's books. How could this be interpreted otherwise?

AuPh


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